Phil Valentine killing the Israelite
They took the name Moses from the Babylonian word misis or mises and they took it directly” from the Egyptian name Ramesses.
Moses results from a Greek transliteration of the Egyptian Mose. I think I’ll go with the explanation of the etymology offered by the peer reviewed Journal of Near Eastern Studies rather than Valentine.[11]
1:11:50-1:14:00 While expounding Gnosticism, he claims Matthew was taken from the name Pro(metheus). “There was no such person as Mathew ever existed.” He claims Matthew comes from “ma” as in Marine” and “theus” as in God.
Matthew was a common name in first century Palestine. I’ve read half-a-dozen first and second century ossuary inscriptions bearing the name. Books XI through XX of Josephus’ antiquities (which are first century Jewish histories covering the first year of Cyrus to Florus) use the name 15 times. It derives from the Hebrew mattath (gift) and yah (Yahweh). Prometheus derives from the Greek pro (before) and methos (learn). No international Catholic conspiracy needed.
In the same section he states Christians took the book of Matthew from Marcion.
Earlier, I quoted Valentine saying the “four gospels were not invented and written until four generations after the death of Paul.” Marcion died around 160. This is a contradiction unless we are taking “one generation” to be 23 years. (The average first-century Jewish lifespan by the way was 40.) Funny thing about this claim is that Marcion held the gospel of Matthew in contempt. He only accepted the Gospel of Luke and Paul’s writings—with all their Old Testament references excised. If we are to believe Marcion wrote Matthew why is Matthew full of quotations and theology from the Old Testament that Marcion hated? Also, we have quotations by the early church fathers from Matthew that date before Marcion was born. It’s textually impossible for Marcion to be Matthew’s source.
Posted By: DAVID JOHNSON
Friday, February 14th 2014 at 6:45PM
You can also
click
here to view all posts by this author...
