Home / Blogs / Was an English subject or citizen of the past equivalent to a slaves? Was an English subject or citizen of the past equivalent to a slaves? Dr. Okpara Nosakhere · Tuesday, March 29th 2011 at 4:32PM · 1755 views Since the royal family believes that England belongs to them and that the people are their subjects, does that mean subjects are equivalent to slaves or not? About the Author Dr. Okpara Nosakhere Kansas City, MO Posts Subscribe Profile Email Report
GOOD Subject Dr. Okpara Nosakhere
...Do you mean....that SUBJECTS or people of 1600-----> England: were the Slaves of King James
AND.....they are not responsible for the kingJames Version....Generational....rape, torture, murder
and NO...NONE.... education of the ancestors of 2020 African Americans.....?
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...Were the 1864-1865 Freed Africans the LEAST educated people on the Planet Earth....?
OR
...Were the COLORED'whiteSupremist' the LEAST educated people on the Planet Earth....?