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Was an English subject or citizen of the past equivalent to a slaves?

Dr. Okpara Nosakhere · Tuesday, March 29th 2011 at 4:32PM · 1755 views
Since the royal family believes that England belongs to them and that the people are their subjects, does that mean subjects are equivalent
to slaves or not?

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Dr. Okpara Nosakhere Kansas City, MO

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robert powell Thursday, April 16th 2020 at 8:50AM


GOOD Subject Dr. Okpara Nosakhere

...Do you mean....that SUBJECTS or people of 1600-----> England: were the Slaves of King James

AND.....they are not responsible for the kingJames Version....Generational....rape, torture, murder

and NO...NONE.... education of the ancestors of 2020 African Americans.....?

*******************************************************************************************************************

...Were the 1864-1865 Freed Africans the LEAST educated people on the Planet Earth....?

OR

...Were the COLORED'whiteSupremist' the LEAST educated people on the Planet Earth....?

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